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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Noam Eitan <noameitan AT yahoo.com>
- To: smille10 AT sbcglobal.net
- Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe"
- Date: Sat, 13 Mar 2010 11:26:27 -0800 (PST)
There are so many instances in the HB where the infinitive absolute is used
where we would use today a finite verb, and we read the meaning from the
context. Can a specific reason be found for every time the infinitive
absolute is used (used in a way that looks awkward to us today), or was BH
generous in dispensing the infinitive absolute? I just find it difficult to
search for a special reason for the infinitive absolute where it crops up so
often in what looks like "the wrong place" to us today.
Noam Eitan,
Brooklyn, NY
-
[b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe",
kenneth greifer, 03/11/2010
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe",
Steve Miller, 03/12/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe", Steve Miller, 03/13/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe", K Randolph, 03/13/2010
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe", Noam Eitan, 03/13/2010
-
[b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe",
Randall Buth, 03/14/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe", Isaac Fried, 03/14/2010
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe",
Noam Eitan, 03/14/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe", K Randolph, 03/15/2010
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe",
Steve Miller, 03/12/2010
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