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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe"

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  • From: Noam Eitan <noameitan AT yahoo.com>
  • To: smille10 AT sbcglobal.net
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe"
  • Date: Sat, 13 Mar 2010 11:26:27 -0800 (PST)

There are so many instances in the HB where the infinitive absolute is used
where we would use today a finite verb, and we read the meaning from the
context. Can a specific reason be found for every time the infinitive
absolute is used (used in a way that looks awkward to us today), or was BH
generous in dispensing the infinitive absolute? I just find it difficult to
search for a special reason for the infinitive absolute where it crops up so
often in what looks like "the wrong place" to us today.

Noam Eitan,
Brooklyn, NY







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