Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On Sat, Jan 9, 2010 at 11:33 PM, James Christian wrote:
> There are a number of problems with bringing in evidence from Greek
> transliterations:
> a) Greek has no way of representing a H consonant midword
> b) Greek has a set of vowels which does not entirely overlap the Hebrew
> vowels e.g. no schewa
> But let's leave that aside for the moment. Which Greek transliterations are
> you talking about exactly? I've seen none that support a form of YAHWEH. Are
> you referring to IABA?
> What do you make of these(copied and pasted from wikipedia)?
>
> Ιουώ (Iouō): Pistis Sophia[94] (2nd cent.)
> Ιεού (Ieou): Pistis Sophia[94] (2nd cent.)
> Ιεηωουά (Ie-ee-ōoua): Pistis Sophia[95] (2nd cent.)
> Ιευώ (Ievō): Eusebius[96] (c. 315)
>
> James Christian

I make nothing of Wikipedia.
There was no schewa "vowel" in Hebrew either.
Whether you like it or not, Yahweh is a result of following up on Greek Iabe.

Yitzhak Sapir