Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Dear Stephen and Rebecca,

Yes, you're right. The English translation having "me" is the so called New
Living Translation (NLT in BW).
While all Spanish versions -with the exception of that you mention- have
"me".
Excuse me, I wasn't accurate enough.
To me the real sense of the issue on discussion is (in Spanish): "... para
que sepáis de qué va la cosa y tengáis fe en mí..." and not "...para que me
conozcáis..."

Heartly

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)

On Fri, Nov 6, 2009 at 11:38 PM, Stephen and Rebecca Shead <
srshead AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Pere,
>
> I checked seven English translations (ESV, NRSV, NIV, NASB, NET, NKJV,
> Holman Christian Standard Bible), and not one of them inserts a "me" after
> "know"; e.g. "so that you may know and believe Me", or "so that you may
> consider and believe in me". What English version inserts an extra "me"?
>
> In Spanish versions, yes, a "me" is usually inserted - presumably because
> they translate with a personal knowing (conocer) rather than a factual
> knowing (saber). The only Spanish version I have in BibleWorks which
> doesn't
> insert a me uses "saber": "para que sepáis y creáis en mí y comprendáis que
> soy yo". It's a rather obscure version called the "Versión castellana del
> P.
> Serafín de Ausejo", or something like that - I like it, because it tends to
> be very different to the Reina Valera and Biblia de Las Américas, and often
> makes interesting (but defensible) translation decisions.
>
> Anyway, I agree with your translation (i.e. the English rather than Spanish
> consensus) - LY modifies WT)MYNW, but I doubt it also modifies TD(W.
>
> Stephen Shead
> Centro de Estudios Pastorales
> Santiago, Chile
>
> ---------- Forwarded message ----------
> > From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
> > To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> > Date: Fri, 6 Nov 2009 05:48:40 +0100
> > Subject: [b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use
> > Regarding Is 43:10.
> > We have here verb YD( in absolute use: TD(W, you (will) know.
> > I checked some (English, Spanish, Catalan...) versions and I realize that
> > usually a "me" is inserted after "you know".
> >
> > *You are my witnesses,  declares the LORD, and my servant whom I have
> > chosen in order that you may know me and believe me and understand that I
> > am
> > He/Who.before me there was no God formed  and there will be none after
> me.*
> > I'm wondering whether this "me" is legitimate and rightful.
> > Indeed, no )WTY comes after TED(W.
> > Is this a legitimate translation of the Hebrew? Would it not rather be
> "you
> > begin to understand" "you know what the matter is", with no relation to
> > "me"?
> > Maybe this "me" is usually put here because it is induced by the "LY"
> that
> > comes after "WT)MYNW"?
> >
> > Pere Porta
> > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
> >
> >
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-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)