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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Stephen and Rebecca Shead <srshead AT gmail.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use
- Date: Sat, 7 Nov 2009 09:38:05 +1100
Pere,
I checked seven English translations (ESV, NRSV, NIV, NASB, NET, NKJV,
Holman Christian Standard Bible), and not one of them inserts a "me" after
"know"; e.g. "so that you may know and believe Me", or "so that you may
consider and believe in me". What English version inserts an extra "me"?
In Spanish versions, yes, a "me" is usually inserted - presumably because
they translate with a personal knowing (conocer) rather than a factual
knowing (saber). The only Spanish version I have in BibleWorks which doesn't
insert a me uses "saber": "para que sepáis y creáis en mí y comprendáis que
soy yo". It's a rather obscure version called the "Versión castellana del P.
Serafín de Ausejo", or something like that - I like it, because it tends to
be very different to the Reina Valera and Biblia de Las Américas, and often
makes interesting (but defensible) translation decisions.
Anyway, I agree with your translation (i.e. the English rather than Spanish
consensus) - LY modifies WT)MYNW, but I doubt it also modifies TD(W.
Stephen Shead
Centro de Estudios Pastorales
Santiago, Chile
---------- Forwarded message ----------
> From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Date: Fri, 6 Nov 2009 05:48:40 +0100
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use
> Regarding Is 43:10.
> We have here verb YD( in absolute use: TD(W, you (will) know.
> I checked some (English, Spanish, Catalan...) versions and I realize that
> usually a "me" is inserted after "you know".
>
> *You are my witnesses, declares the LORD, and my servant whom I have
> chosen in order that you may know me and believe me and understand that I
> am
> He/Who.before me there was no God formed and there will be none after me.*
> I'm wondering whether this "me" is legitimate and rightful.
> Indeed, no )WTY comes after TED(W.
> Is this a legitimate translation of the Hebrew? Would it not rather be "you
> begin to understand" "you know what the matter is", with no relation to
> "me"?
> Maybe this "me" is usually put here because it is induced by the "LY" that
> comes after "WT)MYNW"?
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
>
-
[b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use,
Pere Porta, 11/05/2009
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use,
Stephen and Rebecca Shead, 11/06/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Verb YD( in absolute use, Pere Porta, 11/07/2009
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