Biblical Hebrew Forum

[dwashbur AT nyx.net]

Karl,
While I tend to agree with you about Genesis, wouldn't most of the examples 
you're talking
about be construct forms?  Those can't take the article.  It seems to me that 
might skew the
results of your search somewhat.

On 30 Sep 2009 at 8:16, K Randolph wrote:

> To answer this question, I just did a quick electronic search for
>  MLK
> and found many examples where it is used without a definite article
> yet as a
> title, not a name. A common contextual clue is "king of ..."
> with the name of
> the place over which he is the king. Often it is preceded by the
> king´s
> name, followed by the title "king of" then the name of the
> place. We have
> the example of Exodus 1:8 and Deuteronomy 17:14-15 where the
> definite
> article does not fit the context. From this example, we see that a
> title
> does not change to a name in the absence of a definite article in
> Biblical
> Hebrew.

Dave Washburn

http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur