Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>]

Looking at the Syriac translations might be interesting.

James Christian


Quoting K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>:

> James:
>
> On Mon, Aug 3, 2009 at 12:37 AM, James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
>
> > So what do you think Karl? Do you think the verses you quoted with the
> > sense of pouring have some common meaning with what you have proposed? Or do
> > you think they can be reduced to a homograph with variant pronunciation when
> > vowels are added?
>
>
> Yes I think the verses that have the meaning of “pouring” do have common
> meaning. The reasons for such are:
>
> In looking at the binyanim, I see them as having lexical import as modifiers
> of action. Qal is a simple active, Niphal a simple passive, Piel a stative
> verb with Pual its passive, Hiphil a causative with Hophal its passive, with
> Hitpoel a reflexive onto the subject. Those are the most common. I have
> found time and time again that when I pay attention to the binyanim that
> what often appears to be different actions often show a commonality of
> action.
>
> Translation is not meaning. All translation is to a certain amount a
> paraphrase, all of it, because different languages do not have exact
> equivelants. Right now, I understand $WQ as referring to being out (and
> about) but to say in English that a press causes oil or must to be out does
> not communicate in English. Though it does in Hebrew. “Pouring” is a
> paraphrase, but it communicates in English. Further, it is the result of a
> press causing the fluids to be out.
>
> While I can’t 100% rule out a homograph, the commonality of action as
> modified by the binyanim seem to point to a commonality of lexical origin.
>
> > It's a little frustrating and disappointing that the claimant that these
> > are homonyms hasn't come back with the relevant cognate evidence. That could
> > have been interesting to look at.
>
>
> It would have been interesting.
>
> > James Christian
> >
> >
> > Karl W. Randolph.
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