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  • From: James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>
  • To: schmuel <schmuel AT nyc.rr.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is the Massoretic text distant from the Latin Vulgate
  • Date: Mon, 20 Jul 2009 17:05:21 +0100

Hi,

I forgot to mention this source:

http://www.jstor.org/pss/1584340

which calls into question whether Jerome actually even ever knew Hebrew.

James Christian

Quoting schmuel <schmuel AT nyc.rr.com>:

Hi Folks,

There are so many difficulties in the post by James that I do not
know exactly where to begin.
However I would like to ask him about one factual assertion to start.

James Read J.Read
8) Jerome (4th century) claims to have based his Vulgate translation
on the Hebrew text yet there is more agreement with derivative
manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate with the aforementioned dead
sea scroll texts, the Greek versions and the Samaritan Pentateuch than
with the MT

James, putting aside Psalms where Jerome has multiple translations
from differing sources, please indicate the basis for your claiming
this distance from the Vulgate OT and the Masoretic Text. And the
Latin supposed affinity to the Greek, or the Pentateuch, or some DSS,
against the Masoretic Text.

Since we have a decent English translation of the Vulgate in the
Douay OT and that can be compared with the English translations of
the Masoretic Text such as the King James Bible, you can simply show
some of these major differences .. sections and verses where the
Latin --> English aligns against the Masoretic Text.

Or if you want to claim that the Douay OT is distant from the 4th
century Latin, please give your historical and textual explanation.

Thanks.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
Queens, NY


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