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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] How does biblical Hebrew describe a present event?

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  • From: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] How does biblical Hebrew describe a present event?
  • Date: Thu, 18 Jun 2009 09:38:37 +1000

I agree with you in large part, Naama. Tense is indicated mostly by the
deictic markers in the clause - that is, those elements that are not part of
the verb, but which indicate something about the circumstance and context of
the verb.

I think that tense is, ultimately, an unhelpful category that we
European-language speakers have unhelpfully imposed onto Semitic languages.
Yes, we need to think about tense in the process of translation, since our
European-based languages employ tense as a basic communicative category.
However, I don't think biblical Hebrew has tense, and therefore when trying
to understand biblical Hebrew on its own terms, it gets in the way.

Both the simple noun clause and the participial clause are verbless clauses -
there is nothing there to indicate tense. Hebrew is simply making basic
equative statements in these cases: X = /X/. I would argue that since
biblical Hebrew works on essentially presenting mainline actions to be viewed
'live', that present tense is usually inferred from verbless clauses because
the reader is 'in the moment' of the text.

BTW - great to 'see' you here!


Regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au





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