Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David Hamuel <davidhamuel AT sbcglobal.net>]

John,


> Does the presence/absence of a dagesh (any type of dagesh - this even 
includes the mapiq) alone effect a change of any kind (excluding the 
obvious change in pronunciation)?


Let's see...

The word  בְּרַיְתָא ; Yemenite tradition: בַּרַּיְתָּא (resh & tav with 
dagesh). 
The word  עִקָּר ; Yemenite tradition: עִיקָר (kof without dagesh).
The word עָרֵב ; Yemenite tradition: עַרָּב (resh with dagesh and kamats). 

Judges 15:3, the word נִקֵּיתִי 
וַיֹּאמֶר לָהֶם שִׁמְשׁוֹן נִקֵּיתִי הַפַּעַם מִפְּלִשְׁתִּים
Babylonian Masorah: the word  נִקֵּיתִי is without dagesh. 

Genesis 29:6 &  29:9: 
וְהִנֵּה רָחֵל בִּתּוֹ בָּאָה עִם-הַצֹּאן
עוֹדֶנּוּ מְדַבֵּר עִמָּם וְרָחֵל בָּאָה

The word באה  is identical in both past and 
present tense. Which one is the present, or past tense?
Now remove the dagesh: Which one is the present,
or past tense? 




Best,

David Hamuel
Type Designer 
Biblical Hebrew, Grammar & Cantillation Expert

Los Angeles, CA — USA