Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jason Hare" <jaihare AT gmail.com>]

Shalom, Yohanan bin-Dawidh,

According to the book /501 Hebrew Verbs/, there is a hiphil form
attested in Mishnaic Hebrew only in the perfect. It doesn't exist in
the Bible in hiphil (as Karl stated), nor is it used in Modern Hebrew
(as far as I'm aware). The infinitive להעשות LH(%WT /le-he'asot/ is
niphal rather than hiphil. Is there a reason why you are interested in
a verb form that isn't used?

Best Regards,
Jason Hare
Rehovot, Israel

On Wed, Jan 7, 2009 at 1:16 AM, Yohanan bin-Dawidh
<yohanan.bin.dawidh AT gmail.com> wrote:
> Shalom l'kulam;
>
> I am trying to figure out what the hiphil conjugate form of "-'asah" would
> be? Is it the same as the qal conjugate form, "ta'aseh"?
>
> Todah rabah,
>
> Yo*h*anan bin-Dawidh