Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>]

Joseph,
> Gentlemen
>  
> Let's talk Hebrew syntax again.
>  
> 2 Samuel 13:4 seems to support the notion of the use of the participle like a present tense verb in direct speech.  The text even uses the direct object marker for the participle in Amnon's response.  I know Niccacci talks about the use of nominal clauses and participial clause to represent the "present axis" in direct speech, but I think most grammarians would object that this is merely a stative use of the participle describing Amnon's state of being in love with Tamar with no necessary time reference in the participle.  What do you think?  Modern Hebrew uses the participle to represent present time actions, right?  Do you think the Bible does as well, or is there really no time reference invovled?  Must time be deduced from other means like context?  
>   

HH: One can imagine an understood copulative verb with the participle. 
The present tense implication of the sentence seems obvious. If it's a 
stative idea, it's obviously a condition going on at the time of the 
speech act, and so at the "present" time.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard