Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yodan" <yodan AT yodanco.com>]

There seems to be a controversy over the use of a meteg in Masoretic
manuscripts. I know this is a complicated topic and not all about it is
clear and agreed by all. My specific question is related to a meteg under a
letter that is followed by a letter that has a Shva. What is the prevailing
view - that the Masoretes intended to use this meteg to indicate that the
following Shva is a Shva Na OR that that Masoretes did not intend to
indicate anything about the following Shva (even though in most cases this
happens to be a Shva Na)? Or are there other views?

 

I'm very interested in hearing about sources (medieval grammarians, modern
grammarians) that address this question. 

 

Many thanks!

 

Rivka Sherman-Gold

 

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