Biblical Hebrew Forum

[George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>]

Come on, Jim! What kind of reasoning is that? Let me reinforce Karl and 
Dave's responses.

Firstly, no there is no possibility in the text that "Hebron" means "not 
Hebron". The suggestion is special pleading because your case has no legs. It 
sounds to me like arguing, "Well, let's suppose that the words don't indicate 
what they seem to indicate, and that an ambidextrous, blue-eyed albino midget 
from the Yukon, with a pet fish called Winona, wrote the text..."

Secondly, if "Hebron" as a proper noun does not appear until late, all that 
tells us is that the author of the patriarchal narratives lived at a late 
date -- certainly much later than the Amarna period.

Thirdly, the -WN ending is recognised as a substantival diminutive ending, a 
bit like adding "-y" to English words. It can be found in place names, but it 
doesn't mean "place" -- that's not part of its semantics. That's why you find 
it also on a whole range of non-place terms, such as those Karl listed.

Once again, your theory seems to have no basis in reasonable logic.


Regards,
GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney)
Ph: 9577 9774. Mob: 0449 758 100
www.moore.edu.au