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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1
- Date: Sun, 14 Sep 2008 07:46:20 +1000
But when a person indicates the use of a participle in Biblical Hebrew as
"present tense", does that not already indicate confusion that should be
clarified?
Yours,
Karl W. Randolph.
To me, of course not, as some Hebrew grammarians argue for the same. It is the old debate about the grammaticalization of aspect and tense in the BH verbal system. Kenneth could just as well challenge your own seemingly aspect-only view.
Regards,
David Kummerow.
-
[b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
kenneth greifer, 09/11/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
K Randolph, 09/11/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
pporta, 09/12/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
K Randolph, 09/13/2008
- Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1, pporta, 09/14/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
K Randolph, 09/13/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
pporta, 09/12/2008
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1, K Randolph, 09/12/2008
- Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1, David Kummerow, 09/13/2008
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1,
K Randolph, 09/11/2008
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