Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Kenneth:
It was a wild guess, and no, I don't think it can be supported.

First Micah 4:8:

Looking at the context of verse 7, we see that YHWH will be king over them
in Mount Zion, then in verse 8 the Tower Eder, protrusion of the daughter of
Zion, is named, then the subjects of the next sentences are its adornments
and the first rulership which will come to the daughter of Zion.

Micah 5:1:

The word you question, מוצאת MWC)T is found only here in Tanakh as a noun
referring to an action. That it is feminine is a function of grammar, not of
the identity of what the action is connected to. In this case, the action
refers to where he came from, namely his origin.

It is not a hophal present tense feminine, that is a modern Hebrew
construct, not Biblical Hebrew. Nor is it based on hophal, the waw instead
of the yod when conjugated or in derived words is common among peh-yod
verbs, as is YC), without it being hophal.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Thu, Sep 11, 2008 at 5:55 AM, kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>wrote:

>
> Could Micah 5:1 say "...from you (Bethlehem-Ephrata) to Me, he will go
> forth to be ruler, and his caused to go forth ones (feminine) are from the
> past, from days of old?"
>
> Maybe instead of "his origins" or "his goings forth" it says "his caused to
> go forth ones (hophal present tense feminine).
>
> In Micah 4:8, it says that the daughter of Zion and a kingdom will come to
> Migdal Eder, which I think is near Bethlehem, so maybe they are the two
> feminine ones caused to go forth from Bethlehem in Micah 5:1.
>
> This is a wild guess, but I was wondering if it is at least grammatically
> possible.
>
> Kenneth Greifer
> _