Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

At looking at the last part in Ez 29:3 I read:

-KJV: My river is mine own and I have it for myself
-NAS: My Nile is mine and I myself have made it

My Catalan translation (*) reads:

-BCI: El Nil és meu, jo m'he creat a mi mateix.

What do you think of the true and real sense of this clause?

Pharaoh is here saying that he caused the Nile to be his (he is the owner of
the river or he arranged things so as the Nile to be at his service, etc.)
or he is saying: .... The Nile is mine and also I created myself! (no need
of a Creator: I created myself)

In grammar terms perhaps the question could be reduced this way:

How do you understand the verse final pronoun -NY: as a DIRECT object or as
an INDIRECT object?

(*) Catalan is my mother language.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)