Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Isaac Fried" <if AT math.bu.edu>]

Kenneth,

It is my understanding that the HI in the hiphil form is the personal 
pronoun HI), ‘he’, for the perpetrator of the act, and that the internal I 
is similarly a contracted HI) for the “beneficiary” of the act, here $XT. 
Thus HI$XIT = HI-$X-HI)-T is already ‘he caused him to be in the state $XT. 
A Hebrew word is already a mini sentence including the actors and the act. 
The middle HI) is represented by a mere I since an additional consonant 
would have confused the root.

Contemporary Hebrew uses the act GARAM for ‘cause’, thus HU) GARAM 
L-HA-$XAT-AH is ‘he caused spoiling’.

Isaac Fried, Boston University
----- Original Message ----- 
From: "kenneth greifer" <greifer AT hotmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 09, 2008 5:24 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] to cause to destroy


> The hiphil form of the verb spelled shin het tav means "to destroy", even 
> though it could mean "to cause to destroy" (I guess). If someone wanted to 
> say "to cause to destroy" would they use the hiphil of this verb which was 
> not used for that meaning or some other verb that means "to cause to 
> destroy" or is their some verb that means "to cause" that would be used 
> with the hiphil form of shin het tav? I am confused about hiphil verbs 
> sometimes meaning "to cause to do something", and sometimes not meaning 
> "to cause to do something", and what happens when you actually want to say 
> "to cause to do something" and the hiphil form of the verb doesn't mean 
> that.
>
> Kenneth Greifer
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