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  • From: "Isaac Fried" <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: "kenneth greifer" <greifer AT hotmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] to cause to destroy
  • Date: Wed, 9 Jan 2008 08:09:47 +0200

Kenneth,

It is my understanding that the HI in the hiphil form is the personal pronoun HI), ‘he’, for the perpetrator of the act, and that the internal I is similarly a contracted HI) for the “beneficiary” of the act, here $XT. Thus HI$XIT = HI-$X-HI)-T is already ‘he caused him to be in the state $XT. A Hebrew word is already a mini sentence including the actors and the act. The middle HI) is represented by a mere I since an additional consonant would have confused the root.

Contemporary Hebrew uses the act GARAM for ‘cause’, thus HU) GARAM L-HA-$XAT-AH is ‘he caused spoiling’.

Isaac Fried, Boston University
----- Original Message ----- From: "kenneth greifer" <greifer AT hotmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 09, 2008 5:24 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] to cause to destroy



The hiphil form of the verb spelled shin het tav means "to destroy", even though it could mean "to cause to destroy" (I guess). If someone wanted to say "to cause to destroy" would they use the hiphil of this verb which was not used for that meaning or some other verb that means "to cause to destroy" or is their some verb that means "to cause" that would be used with the hiphil form of shin het tav? I am confused about hiphil verbs sometimes meaning "to cause to do something", and sometimes not meaning "to cause to do something", and what happens when you actually want to say "to cause to do something" and the hiphil form of the verb doesn't mean that.

Kenneth Greifer
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