Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Bob MacDonald <bobmacdonald AT shaw.ca>]

OK - ignore part of this question - it really was too obvious and I have
been under the weather and slightly blinded with cold

The ta suffix is exactly what I should have seen as expected

But the perfect translated into English future which might be misread as
commandment - this is a theological translation - right?

Has anyone written on the theology of tense?  It seems to me that the
perfect is a proleptic promise.

Bob

Bob MacDonald
Victoria BC
http://gx.ca
http://bmd.gx.ca
 

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Bob MacDonald
Sent: Saturday, February 24, 2007 1:10 PM
To: 'b-hebrew'
Subject: [b-hebrew] Tenses - Deut 6:4

The Blue Letter Bible http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Deu
<http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Deu&chapter=6&verse=5&vers
ion=KJV#5> &chapter=6&verse=5&version=KJV#5 shows the tense of Deuteronomy
6:4 'ahavta as Qal perfect

 

Other online resources confirm that a general present might be a suitable
literal translation

 

Any thoughts - 1. why is it always future, implying imperative and 2. what
is the ta suffix - I have a new Hebrew book of verbs but it is all in Hebrew
so its rather tough slogging at the moment but I can't find the ta suffix as
a verb part 

 

Thanks for your patience with the questions

 

Bob MacDonald

Victoria BC

http://gx.ca

http://bmd.gx.ca

 

 

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