Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

     Yigal, Yes, "Hed" seems somehow connected to similarly spelled 
linguistic relatives in BH, Aramaic, Ug. and Arab. but none of these 
possibilities can be considered a definite answer. 
   
        Another direction in the search may be its location in the verse in 
opposition to "Mehumah'  ( BDB.)
   
     For final answer for this and other difficult questions, one must expect 
the return of Elijah ( who traditionally will then solve problems).
   
    And sure, if your machine can handle it,  please send me the paper.
   
      Uri
   
   
   
  On 12/7/06, Yigal Levin wrote:
> This make it more problematic. If hed is a shortened (or construct) form of
> hedad, it has nothing to do with thunder, and it's difficult to see the
> connection between "shouts of joy" and Hadad. On the othe hand, the Arabic,
> and more importanatly the Ugaritic cognates seem to mean "thunderous noise",
> which fits Hadad better. And if so, there is no connection between "hed" and
> "hedad". 
 
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>From kwrandolph AT gmail.com  Thu Dec  7 13:25:04 2006
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Date: Thu, 7 Dec 2006 10:25:03 -0800
From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Capernaum
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On 11/29/06 Yitzhak Sapir answered the following:
>>
On 11/25/06, K Randolph wrote:

> All I say is that if the BGDKPT letters originally had only one sound,
> then many words would be unpronounceable unless each consonant is
> followed by a vowel. Examples include Rebecca (modern Hebrew Rivkah)
> and Capernaum (Kfar Nachum).

If you look up the following article:
 F. C. B.  CAPERNAUM, CAPHARNAUM J Theol Studies 1933 os-XXXIV: 385-390
http://jts.oxfordjournals.org/cgi/content/citation/os-XXXIV/136/385

examines variants in all kinds of texts in what appears to be a rather
exhaustive investigation.  The conclusion is that the spelling
"Capernaum" is late and does not predate the 4th century.
<<

To my amazement after an off list discussion of firewalls, Yitzhak
located a copy of the relevant document in my local town, albeit on
microfilm. When I looked up the article, none of the evidence that the
author presented for either spelling is from a Galilean source prior
to the 4th century. Further, he has only speculation with an admission
that neither he nor his colleagues knew as to where the "p" instead of
"f" in Capernaum/Caphernaum comes from.

The author assumed that the Hebrew pronunciation was always with an
"f" instead of "p", and assumption I have questioned before. Further,
it appears that the Majority Text of the New Testament has preserved a
first century Galilean accent for some names, e.g. Matthaion
(Maththaion), Nazaret (Nazareth), as well as Capernaum (whence the
recognition that Peter was from Galilee by his speech), a record that
was "corrected" in some later documents.

I have previously concluded that there may have been a pronunciation
shift in which Galilee lagged behind Judea, but even in Galilee had
almost been completed by the first century. The evidence is slight and
far from a proof, but at the same time it exists.

Karl W. Randolph.