Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Mark:

First of all, I read the text without points. All too often I find
that the points do not fit with the context and good grammar, nor make
sense.

In this case, the first $)L is clearly a hiphil, or hophal. It is a
causative, but is it active or passive voice? There are enough times
that the medial yod of the hiphil is omitted, so the hiphil cannot be
ruled out except by context. That we would not use the causative in
this context in English is immaterial.

"Even I, I cause him to be requested for the Lord all his days,
because he was requested for the Lord." Awful English, hence
translators use completely different words to convey the idea.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 10/28/06, Mark Spitsbergen <awakesd AT earthlink.net> wrote:
> Look again at the context. Especially verse 11. "Lent" is an incorrect
> translation. A more correct yet not too rigidly Hebraic translation,
> "I ask that he be for the Lord all his days, he was asked to be for
> the Lord." In other words, she was asking Eli to take her son to be
> with him in God's service.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> Karl, how then do you make the proper distinction from $:)"LFTI
> (se'elati/my petition) and $F)AL:TI  (sa'alti/to ask) of verse 27 (I hope
> the nomenclature is correct)? I would have thought that you would translate
> the hifil perfect, first person common singular with a third person
> masculine singular suffix- "I have dedicated him." This would be more in
> keeping with Hannah's vow as well as the possible wordplay. By the way I am
> looking beyond the contribution of David Kimchi.
>
> Mark Spitsbergen
> San Diego, CA
>
>
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