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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] After she had eaten, after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus infconst without?

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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] After she had eaten, after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus infconst without?
  • Date: Sat, 21 Oct 2006 19:45:18 +0200

Dear Chris,

It would seem that from a grammatical point of view, all of the interpretations are possible. So it's a matter of context. Why do you assume that "drinking" means alcohol (and why the capital A?)? And if it does, why do you think that anyone who drank was drunk (that is, intoxicated)? True, she later assured Eli that she was not drunk, but that does NOT mean that she did not partake some of the wine as part of the feast - if indeed there was any wine at all.

We must be careful not to allow our pre-conceptions to cloud our interpretations. There might have been alcoholic drinks at early Israelite sacral feasts, but we do not know. And if there were - that does not mean that they all went home drunk.

Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- From: "Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, October 20, 2006 9:41 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] After she had eaten,after the eating - 1 Sam 1:9 Inf Const with fem suffix versus infconst without?


There seems to be disagreement between my textual workbook and some
translations and the Jewish interpretation concerning specifically the word
"AaCHLaH", alternative infinitive construct, or Infinitive construct with
3rd person fem suffix.

The two interpretations are:
1. after the eating and the drinking in Shiloh
2. After she had eaten and drunk in Shiloh

I dissagree with both and propose what seems to me the most rational
ie...... After her eating in Shiloh and after the drinking.

MEANING: She had eaten BUT the drinking refers to Alchohol which She did
not drink. In other words there was drunkeness in Shiloh. But that Hannah
had indeed eaten but not fully participated in family affairs at that
moment.

It seems that this, for me at least, is explained by TWO things:
1. The verb SHaToH (drink) in Inf Absolute????? while "eat" is in Inf
const.
2. Word order where "in Shiloh" seems to be strategically placed before the
drinking.

I would appreciate your comments, corrections etc.

Chris Watts
Ireland.

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