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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew "If-and" construction and the Book of Mormon

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  • From: "Kevin Graham" <kevlds AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew "If-and" construction and the Book of Mormon
  • Date: Wed, 16 Aug 2006 03:09:57 +0000



If ... and seems to be a common English idiom, so I don't see that it can
be exclusive to Hebrew. To use "if ... then" in any of the passages below
would lead to odd English. Are you sure it never occurs in the KJV?

Well the argument goes like this. The normal usage of "if-then" (i.e. if she calls, then I will go) was found in the Book of Mormon manuscript to be "if-and" (i.e. if she calls and I will go). This makes for poor English, but if being translated from Hebrew, we are told that it makes perfect sense.

There is no other way to explain this phenomenon unless of course the person from which this BoM text was translated, was an ancient Hebrew speaking Jew.

We are told that there are no examples of this phenomenon in any English translation in any English text available to the translator in 1830. The KJV doesn't have any if-and constructions because it is poor English, and was changed to read if-then.






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