Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Just a quick question because it is impossible to search for this in 
Gesenius.  So your help is appreciated.

It seems that the difference between the use of 'LeV' and 'Le'VaV (say for 
example between Proverbs 4:21 and Proverbs 3:3) is that the Latter (Le'VaV) 
implies a more FORMAL EMPHASIS when the writer refers to the heart in its 
metaphorical sense? - am I wrong because this info was gleaned from a modern 
hebrew definition.

Thankyou
Chris Watts
Ireland