Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Oun Kwon" <kwonbbl AT gmail.com>]

On 5/20/06, Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com> wrote:

> HH: There is no grammatical basis for "till" that I can see. Maybe that
> is why modern translations do not interpret it that way. In Hebrew the
> waw consecutive with the second verb normally indicates an action that
> follows the action of the first verb. The LXX has EPEIDH when the KJV
> has "till," but EPEIDH means "when" or "after." So it agrees with the
> modern translations, as does the Hebrew:
>
> NRSV: Ex. 34:33 When Moses had finished speaking with them, he put a
> veil on his face;
>
> HH: This does not have to be confusing.

<clipped>

Hi Harold.  I knew something was fishy in KJV rendering.

Thanks for clarification.

Exo 34:33       And when Moses had finished speaking with them,
                              he [had to] put a veil over his face.

With expansion  [had to] added in the text, the narrative tells the
story without confusion.

While Moses was speaking with them, his face kept shining. Thus he had
to put a veil for the sake of the people after finishing speech.  I
think KJV overstepped and tried to understand (wrongly) the text to
say Moses put a veil before beginning to speak.

Oun Kwon.