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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Exo 34:33 Moses put on a veil - when

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  • From: "Oun Kwon" <kwonbbl AT gmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exo 34:33 Moses put on a veil - when
  • Date: Sat, 20 May 2006 17:32:56 -0400

On 5/20/06, Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com> wrote:


HH: There is no grammatical basis for "till" that I can see. Maybe that
is why modern translations do not interpret it that way. In Hebrew the
waw consecutive with the second verb normally indicates an action that
follows the action of the first verb. The LXX has EPEIDH when the KJV
has "till," but EPEIDH means "when" or "after." So it agrees with the
modern translations, as does the Hebrew:

NRSV: Ex. 34:33 When Moses had finished speaking with them, he put a
veil on his face;

HH: This does not have to be confusing.

<clipped>

Hi Harold. I knew something was fishy in KJV rendering.

Thanks for clarification.

Exo 34:33 And when Moses had finished speaking with them,
he [had to] put a veil over his face.

With expansion [had to] added in the text, the narrative tells the
story without confusion.

While Moses was speaking with them, his face kept shining. Thus he had
to put a veil for the sake of the people after finishing speech. I
think KJV overstepped and tried to understand (wrongly) the text to
say Moses put a veil before beginning to speak.

Oun Kwon.




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