Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Oun Kwon" <kwonbbl AT gmail.com>]

I am coping  Exo 34:33

'When Moses finished speaking with them, he would put a veil on his face. "
(NET)

Many modern translations render like this and makes us completely confused.

Now I have KJV:

And till Moses had done speaking with them, he put a vail on his face.

This perfectly makes a sense in the context of the Exodus narrative as well
as in 2Co 3:13.  So, my understanding of the verse is something like this:

'And till Moses had done speaking with them, he kept a veil over his face.'

Can you experts on Hebrew explain the grammatical and syntactical basis for
'till' in KJV, which is actually italicized to tell that it is not in the
text per se.

Thanks for your help.

Oun Kwon.