Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - [b-hebrew] Exodus 12:11 - 12

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: <tladatsi AT charter.net>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Exodus 12:11 - 12
  • Date: Mon, 30 Jan 2006 21:55:58 -0800

Hello,

I am reading Exodus 12:11 and I am confused by the last three words. The
rest of the passage is clear enough - this is how you eat the meal, with your
loins girded up, scandals on you feet, and your staff in your hand, and you
eat it in haste. It seems like you could put the sof pasuq on *behipazon*
and the sentance would be just fine. The last three words seem like, if not
a complete non sequitur, at least disjointed. The first part of the verse
indicates that those eating the *pesakh * meal should be ready to move on out
at a moments notice.

Then they are advised to stay in doors the entire night because Yahweh will
visit the latest and worst plague unpon the animals, humans, and gods of
Egypt. So there is no real reason to have the staff in hand since one will
be going anywhere for some time, not before sunrise.

Ending the verse telling the Isrealites to be ready to move at anytime during
the meal are three words -

*pesakh khu layahweh*

As an ending for 12:11 it does not flow. There is no logical connection
between being ready to move at a moments notice and that fact that the pesakh
is Yahweh's. Grammatically, there is no connection either. There is no
*because* for *for*. Even the cantilation marks do not seem to fit. If this
were some sort of dependent clause, shouldn't there be some sort of
disjunctive mark, like an atnakh or segol or something. It does not work as
a link to the next verse either.

Even the phrase itself seems odd, is the *pesakh* every anything other than
Yahwehs?

BTW, What is root of *pesakh*?


--
Jack Tladatsi




Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page