Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Dear Rochelle:

I find your report about Hebrew music rather interesting.

But I have a question: some of us believe that during 
Biblical times (from Moses in the 15th century BC if not 
before Moses, to the Babylonian Exile) that Hebrew 
syllables were pronounced CV, that there were no CVC 
syllables until after Hebrew was no longer spoken as a 
native (learned at one's mother's knee) language: how 
does that influence how the music fits with the words?

To test the idea, I read Psalm 96 pronouncing each 
syllable as CV, including final syllables, and as you say, 
it has a strong rhythmic component.

But the earliest examples of the music notation is found, 
as you mention, in the DSS, so could it have changed to 
reflect the changing pronunciation of the Hebrew 
language?

Yours, Karl W. Randolph.


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