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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] midwives
  • Date: Mon, 31 Oct 2005 21:03:53 -0600

Dear Bryan,

If it refers to the Hebrew women in verse
16, why wouldn't it refer to Hebrew women in verse 15?

Since I can anticipate your possible retort, let me say that gentilics normally modify a noun they go with. I have no reason to think that "Hebrew" does not modify the preceding word "midwives" in Ex 1:15. The two word agree in number and gender. There is no preposition between them to suggest any other relationship.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard





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