Biblical Hebrew Forum

["B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>]

Shalom,

Thanks Yigal and Rivka for your answers. I hope you and others will 
answer again.

The Hebrew in question is _lamyalldot ha`ibriyyot_.  If we only vocal 
ize the lamed with shewa instead of patakh, the expression becomes a 
construct chain translatable as "the midwives of the Hebrews."

A couple things recommend the shewa reading.  It seems strange to me to 
think that Pharaoh would request Hebrew midwives to kill Hebrew 
children.  In fact, Rivka asks why use Egyptians midwives with Hebrew 
children.  Answer: to achieve Pharaoh's genocidal aim.

I also note the expression in v. 21 vayy`as ['elohiym] lahem batiym. 
The event of v. 21 seems hardly worthy of note unless God made a place 
for Egyptian women as befitting noble Gentiles.

I repect the Jewish tradition that these two midwives were Yoxebed and 
Miryam, the LXX that translate "Hebrew midwives," and the standard 
translations that also seem to agree that they were Hebrews.

Thanks again, Bryan


Yigal Levin wrote:
> The simplest meaning of "hamiyaledot ha(ibriyyot" is "the Henrew midwives". 
> I'd need a good reason from the contexts to render "the midwives for the 
> Hebrews".
>
> Yigal

> > B-Haverim,
> >
> > What do you all think of the possibility that the midwives of Exo 1:15
> > were Egyptians rather that Hebrews?
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Bryan

--
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
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