Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 26/09/2005 08:59, Vadim Cherny wrote:

> > > "Man" (2:5) is the *only* antecedent to "he" implied in the 3rd 
> > > person verb at the beginning of 2:6. ...
> >
> >
> > Since "man" is negated in v.5, he cannot be the subject of v.6.
>
>
> This is an interesting point, but is there any evidence to support 
> such rule? ...


I'm not sure. But it doesn't sound right that the subject of 'AYIN "not 
existing" in one clause is also the subject of the next clause, and negated.

...

> > No it does not. 'ADAM is explicitly marked as the object in this 
> > verse with the marker 'ET.
>
>
> Sure. But et refers to another phrase: God begot the man, pause, 
> [then] he breathed. The formal antecedent to "breathed" is the man, 
> though we cannot exclude that it was God. ...


No, this is a rule that I am sure of, that in a chain of WAYYIQTOLs with 
no explicit subject on a following clause the assumed subject is the 
subject rather than the object of the preceding clause.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/