Biblical Hebrew Forum

[MarjorieAlley AT cs.com]

Hi ---

I am curious about why the hard pe in the Hebrew names Pinchas (English 
Phinehas) and Peleg are spelled with a phi instead of a pi in the LXX.

Why did the LXX spirantize the pe when they transliterated the names?  Does 
this reflect a different Hebrew pronunciation of the names or is there some 
other reason?

And I wonder why the English transliteration carried over the phi for 
Phinehas, but not for Peleg?

Does anyone have some thoughts on this? It's just something I'm curious about.

Thanks,
Marjorie Alley