Biblical Hebrew Forum

[MarjorieAlley AT cs.com]

Dr. Peter Kirk wrote:

>>> True, but we are almost certain that phi was an aspirated plosive, at 
least in classical times - perhaps not quite so certain for LXX times. <<<

Would you mind clarifying this for me? Are you saying that you do not 
necessarily agree with Dr. Hoffman that the LXX's "phi" in Pinchas/Phineas 
represented a Hebrew pronunciation which differed from the later Massoretic 
pronunciation? 

You're saying that the phi might have been an aspirated plosive ( a "p" 
rather than an "f" ) when the LXX was written? 

Thank you,
Marjorie Alley