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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: MarjorieAlley AT cs.com
 - To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org, peterkirk AT qaya.org, joel AT exc.com
 - Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi
 - Date: Mon, 19 Sep 2005 20:39:58 EDT
 
Dr. Peter Kirk wrote:
>>> True, but we are almost certain that phi was an aspirated plosive, at
least in classical times - perhaps not quite so certain for LXX times. <<<
Would you mind clarifying this for me? Are you saying that you do not
necessarily agree with Dr. Hoffman that the LXX's "phi" in Pinchas/Phineas
represented a Hebrew pronunciation which differed from the later Massoretic
pronunciation?
You're saying that the phi might have been an aspirated plosive ( a "p"
rather than an "f" ) when the LXX was written?
Thank you,
Marjorie Alley
- 
            
            [b-hebrew] Phinehas &  Peleg - pe > phi,
            MarjorieAlley, 09/18/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi, Peter Kirk, 09/19/2005
 
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
 - 
            
            [b-hebrew] Phinehas &  Peleg - pe > phi,
            Dr. Joel M. Hoffman, 09/19/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi, Peter Kirk, 09/19/2005
 
 - 
            
            Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas &  Peleg - pe > phi,
            MarjorieAlley, 09/19/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi, Dr. Joel M. Hoffman, 09/20/2005
 
 - 
        Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas &  Peleg - pe > phi,
        MarjorieAlley, 09/19/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi, Peter Kirk, 09/20/2005
 
 
 
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