Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Kevin Graham" <kevlds AT hotmail.com>]

Ex 13:15 "It came about, when Pharaoh was stubborn about letting us go, that 
the LORD killed every firstborn in the land of Egypt, both the firstborn of 
man and the firstborn of beast. Therefore, I sacrifice to the LORD the 
males, the first offspring of every womb, but every firstborn of my sons I 
redeem."

This seems to imply that by sacrificing his firstborn, that Moses redeems 
(delivers, saves, rescues) his future firstborn grandsons. Now I've been 
told that the Hebrew phrase translated "firstborn of my sons" simply means 
"my firstborn sons."

Is this true? If so, I wonder why most Bible translations retain the 
ambiguity - as far as I can tell only the NIV and NLT have changed it.