Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Awohili AT aol.com]

I don't *know* but will hazard a guess.  If I recall correctly, the  most 
likely reason is that, though a hiphil of hyh/hwh is unattested in the  
Bible, 
such a form in 3ms would be "yahweh,"  which in turn would be the  same as 
certain ancient Greek transliterations of the Name, i.e. IABE, IAOUA/E,  etc.
 
In other words, if such a form existed it would conveniently confirm the  
Greek traditions.  And in meaning, it would describe "Yahweh" as the  Creator 
and 
Fulfiller of his promises, a rather handy bridge between Genesis and  Exodus 
in particular.
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 08/04/2005 3:26:18 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
K0434995 AT kingston.ac.uk writes:

I hate to  keep pressing the point but does anyone know why there is an 
opinion
that  YHWH is 3ms hiphil of ehyeh Qal?