Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 02/08/2005 20:39, Vadim Cherny wrote:

> ...
>
> This issue is irrelevant to the discussion at hand, since I already stated
> several times that YHW, IMO, is not a word but a construct, something like
> acronym.
>  

You have asserted this many times, but you have not provided one scrap 
of evidence.

> But the example I offered is very much proper. He in the definite article is
> lost in the Modern Hebrew. ...

NO! It is very much pronounced in modern Hebrew.

> ... There is no evidence of its pronunciation in the
> ancient language. The fact that Aramaic has only a for the definite article
> suggests that Hebrew also had only a, and thus he was a mater lectionis.
>
>  
It may be hard to prove that this he was pronounced. But the burden of 
proof that the word was not pronounced as written must be on you. And 
Aramaic doesn't help because its article is a suffix.

> > The point is simply that Hebrew words NEVER begin with vowels.
> >
> >    
> Only if one assumes that 1s and 3ms FT prefixes are consonants, for which no
> evidence or conclusive theoretical proof exists. Personally, I can't see
> what's wrong in assuming 1s FT prefix a vowel, if 1s possessive suffix is a
> vowel.
>
>  
Well, again the burden is on you to prove a non-standard pronunciation.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/