Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

> >On Wed, 22 Jun 2005 10:12:12 +0200 "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> >writes:
> >>The verb QNH often means "to make" or "to create" (cf. Gen. 14:22).
> >>Might it
> >>not mean, "I am no prophet, for I was made a man from my youth", or
> >>"for
> >>[God] created me a man from youth".
> >___________________
> >
> On 22/06/2005 12:53, George F Somsel wrote:
> >What would that mean?  It would seem that KiY is a causal particle.  Is
> >see no connection between "I am a farmer" and "for God created me a man
> >from my youth."

> >
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
> Coul 'adam be used here in the sense of "common person", as (according
> to many) in Psalm 49:3, 62:10? In this case the speaker could be
> claiming that he is a common peasant who never had the chance to become
> someone special like a prophet.
>
> But this still doesn't explain the hiphil of QNH, otherwise unattested.
> I did wonder if this could be a denominative from QNH = cane, so meaning
> that "a man had me beaten with canes", leading into verse 6.
>
Yigal, thanks very much. Your translation answers my main question, that
adam could be the object instead of the subject.
However, as Peter said, your translation throws away the causitive sense.

Peter, thanks for the verses in Psalms on adam vs. ish.
-Steve Miller
Detroit