Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com> wrote:inter alia: 
"... There is no reason to suppose Egyptian 
gods are involved rather than Baal or Yahweh, especially
in light of the text. [in K. 'ajrud]"

  The Egyptian god Bes is illustrated there. According to P. Beck  three 
different illustrators are involved..

".... we might suggest that since
Solomon is said to have had idols in Jerusalem, we
cannot be sure he built the Temple to Yahweh. That
claim seems to overlap the theological aim of Kings
and yet is internally inconsistent with the "idols"
factoid...."

   There is nothing wrong with speculation provided it is based on 
evidence,which is not the case here.

     

" ...On the other hand, since starting with the
Mt. Carmel episode we see a stark contrast between
use of Yahwistic names and non-Yahwistic names"

 Truly a peculiar statement, since foreign gods were never more than a 
remarkably small proportion of Israelites theophoric names. As I suggested 
before, J. Tigay wrote a fascinating study on this very subject.


"...The Mesha stele is ambiguous. Viewed in light
of the book of Kings, one may suggest worship of
Yahweh alone. "    

    On can state the above not 'in the lightof the book of Kings', but simply 
on what the stele states.

"..Viewed in light of contemporaneous
inscriptions, one may suggest that the Temple [mentioned in Mesha stele]
was to Yahweh, but Baal and Asherah may have 
been present there as well."

  Another highly speculative statement without any grounding in fact, since 
ANE temples tended to be dedicated to single deities.

  But then, as they say in an important Semitic language: "Die Gedanken sind 
frei."

  Uri   

 




 




                
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>From jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net  Thu Mar 10 12:55:30 2005
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Date: Thu, 10 Mar 2005 09:55:54 -0800
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew]  Overspecification
From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
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Thank you Bryan,

I took a look at these examples.

On 3/9/05 11:13 AM, "B. M. Rocine"  wrote:

> I think you asked recently for examples of overspecification of a
> participant.  I ran across a couple today:
> 
> Gen 29:10  ...laban 'axiy 'immo...  X 3!  I suppose this may be to underline
> that Jaakob had indeed found family.  I think we should note as interesting
> that Laban may not be considered a bonafide participant in the narrative
> yet.

I agree, rhetorical underlining seems to be what is happening here. The
relationship between Jaakob and Laban is repeated because it is highly
significant to the story. Narrative also tends to get redundant and wordy
near a peak in the action. Not sure if this applies here.

> 
> Gen 41:46   ...par`oh melek micrayim...  I would say that the "full"
> reference to Pharoah here (in contrast to just par`oh) enobles Joseph's
> promotion to prime minister.

Yes again. This struck me as a summary statement of what has just
transpired. Joseph's assent to his new office is summed up here and the most
salient issue is the status of the man he is reporting to, melek micrayim.

In both examples the "Overspecification" appears to function as a salience
marker. 


thanks again,
Clay Bartholomew