Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 18/02/2005 16:24, C. Stirling Bartholomew wrote:

> ...
>
> > Presumably if C's "for six days" alternative actually means anything
> > different from "in six days" ...
> >    
>
> This is an argument from an English text ...
>
>  
No, it was an attempt to understand C's posting. He or she was trying to 
distinguish two possible meanings of the Hebrew phrase by means of 
English near equivalents. This couldn't be done with only Hebrew words 
because that would be unhelpful circular argumentation: of course B- 
means B- but that doesn't help us! Perhaps technical grammatical terms 
would have been more precise, but not necessarily more understandable.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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