Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kgraham0938 AT comcast.net]

Hello Vadim:

I think the answer lies in the conjunction KI.  As you know it has several 
usages, I think this particular one is called "evidential."  Which means that 
it provides the evidence or motivation behind a statement, rather than 
presenting the cause of an action.  See " Guide to Biblical Hebrew Syntax" 
Bill Arnold and John H Choi.

In otherwords the KI here is explaining why Moses said the previous 
statement. (verse 10) For example turn to 1 Sam 26:15 I think KI is being 
used the same way. L' $AMAT:TTA 'L 'ADONAI HAMELEK CIY BA"

Why did you not gaurd your lord the kind? For one of the people came....

The KI here is explaining the motivation for saying the first part, same in 
our verse here. The motivation why Moses says what he says in verse 10 is 
because of what YHWH did in verse 11.

" You shall not work, you and your son.... for (the motivation why Moses said 
the previous statement) in six days....

We have to add "in" to our translation to make it smooth.  Because it is 
linked to the previous verse.  That is why I don't think translating it as 
"for six days YHWH made the heavens..." is not quite accurate, because it 
sounds like Moses is switching topics and I don't think he is.

This can be verified when you look at the LXX of the verse, it reads...

EN GAR hEZ hMERAIS

For in six days....


--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net


> Hello,
> 
> Considering Exodus 20:11 - the phrase translated "IN six days".  I think 
> the 
> text reads just "six days".  I have heard some claim that it could also be 
> rendered "for six days".  This seems to be unlikely.   
> 
> Would "IN six days" typically be rendered with "b-" (in) or perhaps with no 
> preposition?
> 
> Thanx.
> 
> C Meadows 
> 
> 
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