Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 18/02/2005 03:31, kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote:

> ...
>
> The KI here is explaining the motivation for saying the first part, same in 
> our verse here. The motivation why Moses says what he says in verse 10 is 
> because of what YHWH did in verse 11.
>
> " You shall not work, you and your son.... for (the motivation why Moses said 
> the previous statement) in six days....
>
> We have to add "in" to our translation to make it smooth.  Because it is linked to the 
> previous verse.  That is why I don't think translating it as "for six days YHWH made the 
> heavens..." is not quite accurate, because it sounds like Moses is switching topics and I 
> don't think he is.
>
>  
Of course, KIY gives the reason, and needs to be rendered in English by 
something like "for" or "because", with "for" as a conjunction. No one 
is doubting that. The issue is a quite separate one: is the temporal 
phrase to be understood like English "in six days" or more like English 
"for six days"? In the latter case, one might want to translate "for for 
six days...", with "for" being used first as a conjunction and then as a 
preposition. Anyway, we need to be careful here to discuss the Hebrew as 
a language in itself and not assume a one-to-one correspondence with 
English.

Presumably if C's "for six days" alternative actually means anything 
different from "in six days", the point being made is that during an 
extended period of creation (more than one week, perhaps billions of 
years!) God followed the pattern of six days of work, one day of rest, 
then again six days of work etc. That would be a good justification of 
the commandment, although it conflicts with Genesis 1 - and I doubt if 
it will satisfy conventional cosmologists and geologists either! But 
could the Hebrew mean this? I rather doubt it, but  what does anyone 
else think.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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