Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Trevor Peterson" <abuian AT access4less.net>]

----- Original Message Follows -----
From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew"
<jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
To: hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Determination Hebrew vs. Aramaic 
Date: Mon, 15 Nov 2004 10:01:11 -0800

> I assume this means the -a suffix in Aramaic is not
> functionally "equivalent" to the prefixed Hebrew h.

Yes, I would say that's correct. Although there is also the
matter of diachronic change, since later dialects tend to
move more in the direction of a default determined state.

> This
> however leaves me a little confused as to what to make of
> the -a suffix. For example, if we encounter a determiner +
> noun in a translated text but we do not know if the
> original was Hebrew or Aramaic, does the presence of the
> determiner present us with a different set of issues with
> an Aramaic original than it would in Hebrew?

I would say it does. Then, of course, there's the question
of translation style--was the translator trying to represent
the determiner woodenly, or was there more sensitivity to
the different function of the determiner in the source and
target languages.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics