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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Determination Hebrew vs. Aramaic

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: "Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Determination Hebrew vs. Aramaic
  • Date: Mon, 15 Nov 2004 17:58:33 -0500

Clay:

Does the -a suffix transliterated into Greek actually mean that the
transliteration is from Aramaic, or Hebrew? Or could this be a hold over from
an original Hebrew pronunciation where the letters of the Hebrew alphabet
actually referred to a consonant-vowel syllable, instead of a single letter
as we presently use it? If the latter, would not all Hebrew words and names
end in vowels? And that the furtive patach under the closing he or chet are
vestages of an original pronunciation that had the vowel following the
consonant?

I don't have answers to these questions, but I have seen enough of the
language that makes me ask them.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>

>
>
> I assume this means the -a suffix in Aramaic is not functionally
> "equivalent" to the prefixed Hebrew h. This however leaves me a little
> confused as to what to make of the -a suffix. For example, if we encounter a
> determiner + noun in a translated text but we do not know if the original
> was Hebrew or Aramaic, does the presence of the determiner present us with a
> different set of issues with an Aramaic original than it would in Hebrew?
>
>
> greetings,
> Clay Bartholomew
--
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