Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Peter:

Rameses in Genesis 47 is a place name, probably not referring to a city, not 
a personal name. Who says that a place had to be named after a pharaoh?

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>

> On 08/08/2004 18:54, wattswestmaas wrote:
> 
> >..
> >
> >Now for the rest........As far as Zoar is concerned the scripture leaves us
> >with no doubt that this is a FUTURE name by the words "the same is Zoar" so
> >that is cleared up.  Dan is mentioned and from the context obviouly refers
> >to that territory which is OBVIOUSLY not dan's yet, everyone would know 
> >that
> >right!  The country of the Amalekites seems not to be so clear.  And this 
> >is
> >ONLY a question OK,  WHY say this and not refer DIRECTLY to whoever was
> >defeated in that particular land?  Surely that would be the same as if I
> >said:
> >"and Hitler invaded the lands of the Jutes, angles and saxons"????
> >  
> >
> 
> Well, he never did.  :-) But no, the anachronism is the other way round, 
> more like "The Romans in England ... For nearly 400 years England was 
> occupied by the forces of the Roman Empire" which I found at 
> http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/timelines/england/rom_roman_invasion.shtml. 
> It must be true if the BBC says so!
> 
> And there are certainly unsignalled anachronisms in Genesis, e.g. the 
> mention of Rameses in 47:11 although I don't think anyone dates Joseph 
> contemporary with or later than Rameses I.
> 
> 
> -- 
> Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
-- 
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