Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Does the direct object marker in Deut 11:27 infer a verb that is not written
IE "you have"?

Would the sentence mean the same without it?

(this stems from Rashi's discussion on the use of 'asher' instead of the
expected conditional 'im-lo' in the following sentences) So his translation,
while not mentioning the 'et' marker goes on to expound that this verse
should really be read: "you have the blessing, that you obey the Lord......"

(Sorry but I can not find anything in my grammar books that helps me to
understand the point of a sentence beginning with the oject marker)



 PS point taken about Rameses  --  thankyou Pete