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b-hebrew - RE: [b-hebrew] direct object marker deut 11:27

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  • From: Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] direct object marker deut 11:27
  • Date: Mon, 9 Aug 2004 14:56:06 -0400

>===== Original Message From "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net> =====
>Does the direct object marker in Deut 11:27 infer a verb that is not written
>IE "you have"?

No. This verse is a sentence fragment, continuing from the previous verse,
where you'll find the verb. It's the sort of thing we would handle in English
with a dash. The same goes for the following verse, although the marker is
not
included there, probably because it governs both phrases.
>
>Would the sentence mean the same without it?

Generally speaking, yes, although it does help to signal the grammatical
connection between this verse and what precedes it.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics





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