Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>]

>===== Original Message From "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net> =====
>Does the direct object marker in Deut 11:27 infer a verb that is not written
>IE "you have"?

No. This verse is a sentence fragment, continuing from the previous verse, 
where you'll find the verb. It's the sort of thing we would handle in English 
with a dash. The same goes for the following verse, although the marker is 
not 
included there, probably because it governs both phrases.
>
>Would the sentence mean the same without it?

Generally speaking, yes, although it does help to signal the grammatical 
connection between this verse and what precedes it.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics