Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Dear peter,

That's just it, I am very dubious about any translation involving 'sworn',
but the words 'the Lord has sworn came from the King James version.  What
about the differing hebrew; one with a dagesh in the 'heh' and the other
without.  One written as a full word and the other written with a mappeq
(construct) the latter cannot be translated as 'sworn'  Surley?

Chris.




On 13/06/2004 07:24, wattswestmaas wrote:

>Members of the List - Hallo.
>
>Subject:  KeSJaH  --  EXODUS 17:16  --  War with Amelek
>
>I have two possibilities here;  either that this word is made up of KeS (in
>the construct and therefore bound to the name of God also in contraction)
>and JaH.  OR the word is linked to a rather forced situation where it means
>'The Lord has Sworn'.  What is more is that in one bible I have the letter
>'HeH' on the word Jah with a dagesh signifying JaH as GoD (by virtue that
it
>becomes a consonant) and in my other bible I have it without the dagesh
>signifying that this is obviously a vowel situation or direction of
purpose.
>
>In thinking about these 2 translations I cannot help but consider the
>circumstances of Moshe's raised hands in this symbolic struggle as helping
>me to decide on the idea that 'a hand to the throne of GoD is more
>appropriate.
>
>As always I appreciate your knowledgable insights to make up for where I am
>lacking.
>
>

I'm not sure where you get the idea from that this may mean "the Lord
has sworn". But my interpretation of the phrase would be that it is an
oath formula, shortened from "I swear with my hand on the Lord's
throne", and perhaps comparable to the English phrase "hand on heart".



--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/