Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Now my 2¢ worth:

In the 30+ uses of the term in Tanakh, it refers to inhabited areas both near 
and far, thus I understand it to mean ”inhabited lands“. This could include 
even distant continents. A derivitive understanding could refer to the 
inhabitants of those lands.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Reinier de Blois" <r.de.blois AT solcon.nl>

> Let us not be misled by the term "islands". The Hebrew word probably has
> a wider meaning than that. Coastland may be a much better translation.
> Think of Isa. 20:6, for example, which probably refers to Philistea,
> Tyrus, or Sidon, some place near Israel. In the later chapters of Isaiah
> it may refer to all kinds of Greek and/or Phoenician colonies in the
> Mediterranean.
> 
> Let us not forget that we have good maps these days. For us the
> distinction between islands, peninsulas, and coastlands is relevant. I
> doubt whether it had the same relevance for the writer of
> deutero-Isaiah.
> 
> Best wishes,
> 
> Reinier de Blois
-- 
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