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  • From: "George Athas" <gathas AT hotkey.net.au>
  • To: "Patrina" <patrina AT bestmail.us>, "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Understanding Aramaic & understanding Hebrew
  • Date: Sun, 30 May 2004 18:05:21 +1000

Hi Patrina!

I'd like to echo Trevor's remarks and say that Aramaic was sufficiently
different from Hebrew as to be beyond the recognition of Hebrew speakers. The
problem today is that Hebrew has attained a greater status than Aramaic, to
the extent that we often get the impression that Aramaic is a dialectal
derivative of Hebrew. I think that mistaken impression is due to Judean
history and the use of the two languages through the centuries for the people
of Judah.

However, the truth is quite different. In the ancient world, Aramaic was by
far the more dominant language -- it had a wider sphere of influence and
usage. The difference between Aramaic and Hebrew could be likened to the
modern day difference between French and Italian: there is a lot of overlap,
but not to the extent where one language is intelligible to the other.


Best regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Lecturer in Biblical Languages
Southern Cross College
Sydney, Australia



----- Original Message -----
From: Patrina
To: b-hebrew
Sent: Saturday, May 29, 2004 11:40 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Understanding Aramaic & understanding Hebrew


Please would someone explain to me whether Aramaic is different enough
from Hebrew that speakers of one language wouldn't be able to understand
speakers of the other language, or would they be able to follow the
majority of it apart from an occasional word? Previously I have assumed
that the differences might be like me listening to Shakespeare's English
compared to modern English. For example, the Aramaic version of "My El,
my El, why have you forsaken me?" being understood by a Hebrew speaker as
"My El, my El, why have you slaughtered me?" is a thought that has
crossed my mind, but I might be misunderstanding.

I am puzzling over 2 Kings 18:26-28 about how much Hezekiah's people
would, or wouldn't, have understood Rabshakeh delivering a message on
behalf of the Assyrian King. 2 Kings 18:26 - "Then Eliakim the son of
Hilkiah, and Shebnah and Joah, said to Rabshakeh, "Speak now to your
servants in Aramaic, for we understand {it;} and do not speak with us in
Judean in the hearing of the people who are on the wall." NASB

I'm wondering about the above verse, because the implication is that the
Judeans wouldn't be able to understand Aramaic, but Rabshakeh refuses to
do as Eliakim, Shebnah and Joah ask, having the full intention to be
understood by all the people within hearing of his voice (v.27).
Wouldn't the listeners have understood the gist of it fairly easily
anyway?

Patrina Nuske Small
Adelaide, South Australia
--
Patrina
patrina AT bestmail.us

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  • Re: [b-hebrew] Understanding Aramaic & understanding Hebrew, George Athas, 06/02/2004

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