Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Dear Harold,

Since (i assume) you're using BHS, you can't see it: the spelling of all of
these with a Shewa is the "normal" construct form. My question was about the
"abnormal" spelling with Hataph-Patah which apears in some prints, but NOT
in BHS. Shai has informed me that this is based on the 1524 Venice edition,
which still does not explain the reason. It apparently has to do with a
no-longer current tradition of using the Hataph-Patah as a "long" Shewa.

Yigal


----- Original Message -----
From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, May 16, 2004 8:49 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Lev. 25:34


> Dear Yigal and Uri,
>
> >One guess, would be that this is simply a scribal error   of
> >vocalization. A different error is conceivable: the peculiar hataf
> >patach here masks another  now vanished word instead of Sadeh.
> >
> >
> >In most primts that I've seen, the second letter (Sin) of the first
> >word of Lev. 25:34, "usedeh" is vocalized with a Hataph-Patah; in
> >Brauer and BHS it has a Shewa. Any guesses about the source of the
> >unusual spelling?
>
> HH: I don't see why it is unusual. It is the normal construct form of
> the noun (cf. Gen 14:7). Would the prefixed conjunction change that?
> I don't think so. See a similar form but in the plural at 2 Sam 1:21
> (cf. also Neh 5:5; 11:30).
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
>
> >
> >Yigal
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