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  • From: Peter Kirk <peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com>
  • To: John D Robinett <jrobinett1 AT wi.rr.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re:hwh in Hifil
  • Date: Wed, 13 Aug 2003 06:36:58 -0700

On 12/08/2003 16:32, John D Robinett wrote:

Peter,

Let me see if I am getting your point. I am still young in Hebrew. Since
the common practice is to use a petach or Kametz with a first H vowels in
the Qal Imperfect 3ms (Yiqtol), that explains the pronounciation dif?
Therefore, Yahweh (as a verb) would be Qal IMpf 3ms instead of Hifil impf
3ms correct? ...

Yes, basically. As I see it, according to the regular paradigms the Qal "imperfect" 3ms of HWH would be either YAH:WEH or YEH:WEH, and the Hiphil, if it existed, would also be YAH:WEH (where : indicates a silent sheva which might be replaced by a hataf patah or hataf segol). So the form YAH:WEH could be from either conjugation.

... And 'ehyeh would follow suit? being Qal impf 1cs. ...

)EH:YEH is the Qal "imperfect" 1cs of HYH, the more common form of the same verb. But actually it would also be the Hiphil "imperfect" 1cs of HYH. So the only argument against this being a Hiphil, in a case like Exodus 3:14 which I presume you are referring to, is that this would be unique, or at least that there are no definitely attested cases of this Hiphil.

... I guess
another question (one which if it can be answered I will be shocked) is how
do we know that the Maseorites pointed it right. Is it possible that it
should be attested in Hifil? And how certain is it that HyH and YHWH can
not be in hifil form? The later I presume is a basic question.

Pointed what right? They pointed nothing as YAH:WEH, that is a scholarly reconstruction based on evidence which has been discussed at length on this list in the past. Or are you suggesting that there might have been in the original text Hiphil forms of HYH or HWH which have been wrongly pointed as Qal? That is possible, I suppose. Or there might be other examples of )EH:YEH, where the pointing would be identical, which were intended by the author to be understood as Hiphil, not Qal. The best argument against this is again that there are no definitely attested examples of this Hiphil, in the Hebrew Bible or if I understand correctly in any other Hebrew, although this would be clearly distinct in the "perfect" etc.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/






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